John Stuart Mill’s Utilitarianism and its relationship to Aristotle’s eudaemonism

How does Aristotle’s theory of virtue differ from Mill’s?

According to Aristotle, happiness comes from virtue, whereas Mill believes happiness comes from pleasure and the absence of pain. Ethics are the moral principles that govern a person’s behavior which are driven by virtues – good traits of character.

What does Aristotle say about utilitarianism?

Aristotle believes that the reason man acts morally is because that is what he is supposed to do, simply because completing his proper function requires such action. The utilitarian, in favor of an empirical view of ethics, looks at what man obviously desires: happiness.

What was John Stuart Mill’s contribution to utilitarianism?

Expanding on philosopher Jeremy Bentham’s original doctrine, John Stuart’s Mill’s utilitarianism has three basic tenets: Pleasure or happiness is the only thing that has true, intrinsic value. Actions are right insofar as they promote happiness; wrong insofar as they produce unhappiness.

See also  How can experts disagree despite having access to the same facts?

What was John Stuart Mill View on utilitarianism?

Mill defines utilitarianism as a theory based on the principle that “actions are right in proportion as they tend to promote happiness, wrong as they tend to produce the reverse of happiness.” Mill defines happiness as pleasure and the absence of pain.

Does Mill agree with Aristotle?

According to Aristotle, happiness is a state of being. Both Mill and Aristotle agree that in order to attain true happiness, human beings must engage in activities that are distinct to humans and that make them happy.

What is a vice according to Aristotle?

Vice was mostly defined in theology as the absence of virtue, while philosophers followed Aristotle in locating virtue as a mean between two opposite “vices,” one representing an excess, the other a lack of the virtuous quality in question.

Does Aristotle agree with utilitarianism?

why they were not utilitarians:

The criteria for being a utilitarian are not universally agreed; Mill called Aristotle a ‘judicious utilitarian,’ although Aristotle never used the term ‘utility’ but talked of eudaemonia; Hume used the term utility a good deal, but is not best understood as a utilitarian.

How is Aristotle like Mill?

Interestingly, Mill’s “happiness” and Aristotle’s “happiness” have some similar features, giving some merit to Mill’s claim that his principles are embodied in other ethical systems. For example, both Aristotle and Mill believe that happiness includes other ends pursued for themselves.

How is Aristotle’s approach different from the utilitarian and Kantian approaches?

Aristotle’s approach is agent-centered in that it focuses on the development of the individual, which in turn, benefits society as a whole. Kant’s approach is duty-based, which means that there are certain duties that we have as human beings and these duties are absolutely binding for us.

See also  Why did Nietzsche think that only the happiness of higher types mattered?

When did John Stuart Mill wrote utilitarianism?


Mill’s work Utilitarianism, originally published in Fraser’s Magazine (1861), is an elegant defense of the general utilitarian doctrine and perhaps remains the best introduction to the subject.

How is Mill’s utilitarianism different from Bentham’s?

The main differences between Bentham theory and Mill theory are: Bentham advocated that the pleasures and the pains differ in quantity and not in quality. He said that pains and pleasures can be computed mathematically. But Mill said that pain and pleasure can’t be measured arithmetically they differ in quality only.

What is Mill’s harm principle?

John Stuart Mill, On Liberty. Mill wrote what is known as the ‘harm principle’ as an expression of the idea that the right to self-determination is not unlimited. An action which results in doing harm to another is not only wrong, but wrong enough that the state can intervene to prevent that harm from occurring.

Why is John Stuart Mill important?

John Stuart Mill was an English philosopher, economist, and exponent of utilitarianism. He was prominent as a publicist in the reforming age of the 19th century and remains of lasting interest as a logician and an ethical theorist.

What is Mill’s proof of the truth of utilitarianism?

Mill argues that the only proof that something is desirable is that people actually desire it. It is a fact that happiness is a good, because all people desire their own happiness. Thus, it is clear that happiness is at least one end, and one criterion, of morality.

See also  What do we mean by the symbolic representation of nothing?

How does Mill’s utilitarianism differ with that of Bentham’s which do you think is better?

What are the main differences between Bentham and Mill’s utilitarianism and which theory is better? Both thought that the moral value of an act was determined by the pleasure it produced. Bentham considered only quantity of pleasure, but Mill considered both quantity and quality of pleasure.

What are the similarities between Bentham and Mill’s utilitarianism?

Bentham and Mill both believed that human actions are motivated entirely by pleasure and pain, and Mill saw that motivation as a basis for the argument that, since happiness is the sole end of human action, the promotion of happiness is the test by which to judge all human conduct.

Which of the following best characterizes the difference between Bentham and Mill with respect to their views on individual natural rights?

Which of the following best characterizes the difference between Bentham and Mill with respect to their views on individual natural rights? Bentham thinks that there are no natural rights, whereas Mill thinks that utilitarian moral theory supports the idea that we should recognize individual rights.